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PARALLEL BIBLE - Romans 3:9


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King James Bible - Romans 3:9

What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

World English Bible

What then? Are we better than they? No, in no way. For we previously warned both Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin.

Douay-Rheims - Romans 3:9

What then? Do we excel them? No, not so. For we have charged both Jews, and Greeks, that they are all under sin.

Webster's Bible Translation

What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

Greek Textus Receptus


τι
5101 I-NSN ουν 3767 CONJ προεχομεθα 4284 5736 V-PNI-1P ου 3756 PRT-N παντως 3843 ADV προητιασαμεθα 4256 5662 V-ADI-1P γαρ 1063 CONJ ιουδαιους 2453 A-APM τε 5037 PRT και 2532 CONJ ελληνας 1672 N-APM παντας 3956 A-APM υφ 5259 PREP αμαρτιαν 266 N-ASF ειναι 1511 5750 V-PXN

Treasury of Scriptural Knowledge

VERSE (9) -
:5; 6:15; 11:7 1Co 10:19; 14:15 Php 1:18

SEV Biblia, Chapter 3:9

¿Qu pues? ¿Somos mejores que ellos? En ninguna manera, porque ya hemos comprobado a judíos y a griegos, que todos estn bajo pecado.

Clarke's Bible Commentary - Romans 3:9

Verse 9. JEW. What then?] After all, have not we
Jews a better claim to the privileges of the kingdom of God than the Gentiles have? APOSTLE. No, in no wise] For I have already proved that both Jews and Gentiles are under the guilt of sin; that they are equally unworthy of the blessings of the Messiah's kingdom; and that they must both, equally, owe their salvation to the mere mercy of God. From this, to the end of the 26th verse, the apostle proceeds to prove his assertion, that both Jews and Gentiles were all under sin; and, that he might enforce the conviction upon the heart of the Jew, he quotes his own Scriptures, which he acknowledged had been given by the inspiration of GOD, and consequently true.

John Gill's Bible Commentary

Ver. 9. What then? are we better than they ? etc..] The
apostle returns to what he was treating of in the beginning of the chapter, and suggests, that though the Jew has the advantage of the Gentile, with respect to some external privileges, yet not with regard to their state and condition Godward, and as in his sight; are we [Jews] better than they [Gentiles]? no, in no wise ; upon no consideration whatever, neither as men, nor as Jews; which is directly opposite to a notion that people have of themselves: in mankind (they say f40 ) there are high degrees, one higher than another, and the Israelites da ym lkm hl[ml , are above all mankind; they are the head, and the nations of the world are the tail, and are like to a serpent, for they come from the filth of the old serpent.

Again, they say f41 , worthy are the Israelites, for the holy blessed God hath given to them holy souls, from an holy place, above all the rest of the people, that they may do the commandments, and delight in the law.

And elsewhere it is observed on those words, ( Genesis 1:24), the living creature, or the soul of the living creature, by R. Aba: these are the Israelites, for they are the children of the holy blessed God, and their holy souls come from him; the souls of the rest of the people, from what place are they? says R. Eleazar, from the side of the left hand, which is defiled; for they have polluted souls, and therefore they are all defiled, and defile whoever comes nigh them: but they are no better, especially with regard to their estate by nature: for we have before proved ; in the preceding chapters, by full instances to a demonstration; and if that cannot be thought sufficient, he goes on to give more proof in the following verses: that both Jews and Gentiles are under sin ; under the power and guilt of sin, and a sentence of condemnation for it; which is equally true of the Jews, who were no better than the Gentiles, for being Abraham's seed, for being circumcised, for having the ceremonial law, and other outward privileges; for they were equally born in sin, and by practice sinners, as the Gentiles: and this is true of God's elect in all nations, who are no better by nature, by birth, than others; as deserving of the wrath of God as the rest; no better in their tempers and, dispositions, or in the endowments of their minds, or outward circumstances of life; nor better qualified to receive and improve the grace of God bestowed on them, than others.


Matthew Henry Commentary

Verses 9-18 - Here again is shown that all mankind are under the guilt of sin, as burden; and under the government and dominion of sin, as enslaved to it, to work wickedness. This is made plain by several passages of Scripture from the Old Testament, which describe the corrupt an depraved state of all men, till grace restrain or change them. Great a our advantages are, these texts describe multitudes who call themselve Christians. Their principles and conduct prove that there is no fear of God before their eyes. And where no fear of God is, no good is to be looked for.


Greek Textus Receptus


τι
5101 I-NSN ουν 3767 CONJ προεχομεθα 4284 5736 V-PNI-1P ου 3756 PRT-N παντως 3843 ADV προητιασαμεθα 4256 5662 V-ADI-1P γαρ 1063 CONJ ιουδαιους 2453 A-APM τε 5037 PRT και 2532 CONJ ελληνας 1672 N-APM παντας 3956 A-APM υφ 5259 PREP αμαρτιαν 266 N-ASF ειναι 1511 5750 V-PXN

Vincent's NT Word Studies

9. Are we better (proecomeqa). Rev., are we in worse case than they? Render, with the American Revisers, are we in better case than they, i.e., have we any
advantage? The Rev. takes the verb as passive - are we surpassed? which would require the succeeding verses to show that the Gentiles are not better than the Jews; whereas they show that the Jews are not better than the Gentiles. Besides, nothing in the context suggests such a question. 27 Paul has been showing that the Old Testament privileges, though giving to the Jews a certain superiority to the Gentiles, did not give them any advantages in escaping the divine condemnation. After such showing it was natural that the question should be renewed: Do the Jews have any advantage?

We have before proved (prohtiasameqa). The reference is not to logical proof, but to forensic accusation. The simple verb means to charge as being the cause (aitia) of some evil: hence to accuse, impeach. Rev., correctly, we before laid to the charge.


Robertson's NT Word Studies

3:9 {What qen?} (ti oun?). Paul's frequent query, to be taken with verses #1,2. {Are we in worse case than they?} (proecomeqa?). The American Revisers render it: "Are we in better case than they?" There is still no fresh light on this difficult and common word though it occurs alone in the N.T. In the active it means to have before, to excel. But here it is either middle or passive. Thayer takes it to be middle and to mean to excel to one's advantage and argues that the context demands this . But no example of the middle in this sense has been found. If it is taken as passive, Lightfoot takes it to mean, "Are we excelled" and finds that sense in Plutarch. Vaughan takes it as passive but meaning, "Are we preferred?" this suits the context, but no other example has been found. So the point remains unsettled. The papyri throw no light on it. {No, in no wise} (ou pantws). "Not at all." See #1Co 5:10. {We before laid to the charge} (proitiasametha). First aorist middle indicative of proaitiaomai, to make a prior accusation, a word not yet found anywhere else. Paul refers to #1:18-32 for the Greeks and #2:1-29 for the Jews. The infinitive einai with the accusative pantas is in indirect discourse. {Under Sin} (hupo hamartian). See #Ga 3:22; Ro 7:14.


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